Frequently Asked Questions

1. What is new?

  • EFAST-2: All Plans required to file Form 5500 electronically with the EBSA (applies to 2009 Plan Years, most amended returns and Delinquent Filer submissions)
    • Signer will have to obtain a Personal Identification Number ("PIN") from the IRS
    • Watch for correspondence from ANGELL explaining the steps to obtain a PIN
  • 403(b) Plans subject to Title I of ERISA: Must file a Form 5500 with all schedules and attachments, including financial statements (Plan Years beginning in 2009).
    • for Plans with over 100 participants (with some exceptions for those plans with between 80-120 participants), an accountant's opinion and audited financial statements are required.
  • DOL issues FINAL regulations on deposit timing of employee contributions and loan payments from company assets (see item 2 below).
  • Rollover/Conversion to Roth IRA: Beginning in 2010 a distribution of pre-tax amounts from a qualified plan can be rolled over directly to a Roth IRA.
    • Income limits no longer restrict this option to participants with adjusted gross income of less than $100,000.
    • Rollover/Conversion option triggers taxation, but not a 10% early withdrawal penalty.
    • Check with your tax advisor.

2. What is the deadline for depositing participants' contributions and loan repayments withheld from wages?

The Department of Labor ("DOL") regulations require that participant contributions and loan repayments must be separated from the employer's assets and deposited into the plan as soon as administratively feasible. You should establish written policies and procedures with respect to remitting participant contributions, and these procedures should be followed consistently.

  • The DOL has established a seven (7) day deposit deadline safe harbor for plans with fewer than 100 participants. This requires that amounts withheld from wages are segregated from the plan sponsor's assets and deposited into plan assets within 7 days from the pay date.
  • Plans that cover more than 100 participants must continue to make the deposit of participant contributions as soon as administratively feasible after withholding, on the pay date or within no more than one or two days from the pay date.

It is extremely important that you deposit participant contributions and loan repayments immediately following EVERY pay date. You should coordinate automation of this process with your payroll provider and investment company.

3. What is the deadline for depositing employer matching, discretionary, or required contributions?

If you intend to deduct the contributions on your corporate tax return, then the contributions must be deposited no later than the due date of your corporate tax return, including extensions. Certain required contributions, such as top-heavy minimums or safe harbor contributions, have additional deadlines.

Sponsors of pension plans must deposit the required contributions no later than the 15th day of the ninth month following the end of the Plan Year to satisfy the minimum funding requirements set forth in the Internal Revenue Code. For partnerships, sole proprietorships and other entities, consult with your tax advisor.

4. What is the deadline for filing the Annual Return/Report Form 5500?

The deadline for filing the Form 5500 is the last day of the seventh month following the end of the Plan Year. For example, a calendar year plan has until the July 31 following the end of the calendar year to file the Form 5500.

A one-time 2½-month extension may be requested. The request for the extension must be received at the IRS before the original due date of the Form 5500.

Generally, plans that cover greater than 100 participants at the beginning of the Plan Year are considered a large plan filer, and must obtain an independent accountant's opinion and attach audited financial statements to the Form 5500 filing. For this purpose, all eligible participants (even if they do not have a current account balance) and any terminated participants with account balances are counted.

5. What is the deadline for providing Forms 1099-R to participants who receive distributions from the plan?

The plan sponsor must provide participants with Form 1099-R no later than February 1 following the calendar year of the distribution.

Forms 1099-R, 1096 and 945 (which reports withholding payments during the year) must be filed with the IRS no later than March 1 following the calendar year of the distribution.

Important: Defaulted participant loan balances are considered distributions and must be reported for the year of the default. Discuss the reporting of any outstanding plan loans for terminated or deceased participants with your APG administrator or the investment company BEFORE the end of the calendar year.

6. Why does The Angell Pension Group, Inc. (APG) need to know about ownership information of other entities (corporations, sole proprietorships, partnerships) related to the entity that sponsors the qualified plan?

There are many reasons. We ask for this information in an attempt to determine if a "controlled group" of entities exists. There are a number of coverage and nondiscrimination tests required by the Internal Revenue Code that must be applied to all of the employees of all members of a controlled group of entities.

In order to determine if a "controlled group" exists, we need to review the ownership information for the company that sponsors your plan and any related entities.

If you provide the information we request on our "Client Questionnaire" at the inception of your plan and annually thereafter, we will be certain to let you know if a change has any impact on the plan. If you do not provide the information, there could be adverse consequences, including disqualification of the plan by the IRS.

Any change in ownership should be reported to APG immediately.

7. What happens to our qualified plan if our company is acquired, or if our company, or any owner of our company, acquires another company?

Any acquisition, disposition or merger should be reported to APG immediately.

There are several actions that may be taken, and much of the flexibility with respect to the available options is lost if not examined before a merger or acquisition takes place.

8. Why does APG want to know about "affiliated" companies that the plan sponsor provides services to, or which provide services to the plan sponsor?

Similar to the rules affecting "controlled groups", there are rules under the Internal Revenue Code that require that all employees of "affiliated service groups" or "affiliated service organizations" be treated as employees of a single employer for coverage and nondiscrimination testing purposes.

9. Why does APG want to know about leased employees?

Not all plans exclude leased employees. If you use the services of a leasing organization, those leased employees may be required to be covered by your qualified retirement plan even though they are not technically your employees.

There are many factors that affect the determination of whether or not leased employees are considered in coverage testing for your plan, even if your plan excludes leased employees.

APG requests leased employee information from you annually. As circumstances change during the year, please be certain to inform us.

10. What constitutes a "hardship" for withdrawal purposes? Why can't a participant withdraw from the plan and stop participation?

Generally, and subject to the terms of the written plan document, under the Internal Revenue Code a hardship withdrawal is a distribution for the following "safe harbor" reasons:

(a) For the purchase of a primary residence (not a vacation home or rental property).
(b) To pay for post-secondary educational expenses for the participant or his/her dependents.
(c) To pay for unreimbursed medical expenses for the participant or his/her dependents.
(d) To prevent eviction from or foreclosure on the participant's primary residence.
(e) To pay for certain funeral expenses.
(f) To pay for repairs to a primary residence resulting from a casualty loss.

When determining whether or not the conditions for a hardship withdrawal have been met, the participant must present proof, such as medical bills, tuition bills, a purchase and sale agreement for a primary residence, or an eviction or foreclosure notice.

If the plan (or any other plan sponsored by the same employer) permits loans, the participant must first take the maximum amount of available loans, and any other in-service withdrawals that are available (i.e., at age 59½, or rollover amounts, if permitted under the plan).

Hardship withdrawals are taxable, and are subject to the pre-age 59½ early withdrawal penalty (10%). Hardship withdrawals may not be repaid to the plan and are NOT eligible for rollover. Participants must suspend 401(k) elective deferrals for at least six (6) months from the date of the hardship withdrawal.

Except for separation from service or retirement, death or disability, or plan termination (in certain circumstances), participants may not "just withdraw" from a qualified retirement plan.

You should always check with APG before making any distributions from the plan!

11. What are "prohibited transactions"?

Prohibited transactions are direct or indirect economic transactions involving plan assets and a "party-in-interest" or "disqualified person". These "disqualified persons" or "parties-in-interest" include fiduciaries, sponsoring employers, certain owners of the sponsoring employer, and certain family members of the owners.

Prohibited transactions include the sale, exchange, or lease of property, extension of credit, transfer or use of plan assets, and certain investments in employer securities or real estate.

Three common examples of prohibited transactions:

  1. Allowing the employer to borrow money from the plan, or withdrawing plan assets for use by the sponsor or a trustee.
  2. Failure to deposit participant contributions (and loan repayments) in the timeframe specified by the Department of Labor regulations and guidelines.
  3. Failure to properly limit the amount of available loans, obtain promissory notes and follow the terms of participant loan agreements.

Prohibited transactions are subject to an annual 15% excise penalty tax until corrected. The DOL has established the Voluntary Fiduciary Compliance Program ("VFCP") for correcting certain prohibited transactions.

12. What are the deadlines for completing the nondiscrimination testing for 401(k) plans?

Nondiscrimination testing should be completed as soon as possible after the end of the Plan Year to ensure any necessary refunds to Highly Compensated Employees ("HCEs") are completed no later than 2½ months following the close of the Plan Year. Refunds made after the 2½-month deadline subject the plan sponsor to a 10% excise penalty. Nondiscrimination testing determines whether the contributions under the plan disproportionately favor HCEs.

For Plan Years beginning in 2010, an HCE is any participant who either: (1) earned greater than $110,000 in the prior Plan Year (the "look-back year"), or (2) is or was a greater than 5% owner in the current or prior Plan Year. For this purpose, spouses, children and parents of greater than 5% owners who are also employees are considered HCEs.

If the level of 401(k) contributions or matching contributions is determined to be discriminatory, refunds to certain HCEs must be made. Refunds are income for the affected HCEs in the year distributed.

Failure to make required refunds by the end of the following Plan Year is an operational defect that can result in adverse consequences.

13. What does "top-heavy" mean?

A qualified retirement plan is top-heavy if the account balances (or accrued benefits) of key employees are more than 60% of the total account balances (or accrued benefits) of all participants.

A top-heavy test is performed as of the last day of a Plan Year, at which time the result determines the top-heavy status for the next Plan Year. Usually, all plans of an employer, and all plans of a controlled group of corporations, are tested together.

For Plan Years beginning in 2010, key employees are: (1) any greater than 5% owners; (2) certain family members of greater than 5% owners; (3) greater than 1% owners that earn over $150,000; and (4) officers of the plan sponsor who earn greater than $160,000.

Plans that are determined to be top-heavy must provide a minimum level of contributions (or benefit accruals) for all non-key employees. In a defined contribution plan (401(k), profit sharing, money purchase), the minimum contribution is 3% of total compensation for the Plan Year.

APG performs top-heavy testing each year. The information you supply on the Client Questionnaire is extremely important in making this determination.

14. What are the limits applicable to a participant's account in a defined contribution plan?

Internal Revenue Code Section 415 sets forth limits on the annual additions to a participant's account in a defined contribution plan. Annual additions consist of all pre-tax salary deferrals, employer contributions, after-tax employee voluntary contributions, and reallocated forfeitures under all plans of the sponsoring employer. The annual addition limits for Plan Years ending in 2010 is the lesser of 100% of total compensation for the year or $49,000.

Internal Revenue Code Section 402(g) and 414(v) sets forth limits on the total pre-tax contributions and Roth after-tax contributions. The deferral limit for 2010 is $16,500, with an additional $5,500 catch-up available for participants over age 50.

Internal Revenue Code Section 401(a)(17) limits the amount of total compensation that may be taken into account for determining contributions. The 401(a)(17) compensation limit for 2010 is $245,000.

  • If your payroll service calculates any employer match or other required or discretionary contributions, you should ensure they have established accumulators that limit the contributions based on the maximum compensation permitted.

Failure to correctly apply the limits is a plan operational defect.

15. Why is it a problem to make "advance" employer contributions to the plan?

If you deposit an amount that exceeds the maximum deductible amount, there is a 10% excise penalty tax.

Additionally, if your plan requires participants to work a certain number of hours or be employed on the last day of the Plan Year to receive a contribution, making contributions on behalf of participants in advance of satisfying those requirements results in failing to operate the plan in accordance with its provisions.

16. What is a "partial termination"? How does it affect the plan and its participants?

A "partial termination" occurs, in general, when there is a decrease of 20% or more in the number of active plan participants as a result of downsizing or a corporate transaction. Accelerated vesting is required for the group of participants affected by the partial termination.

Notify APG immediately of any event that may constitute a partial plan termination.

17. Why do qualified domestic relations orders (QDRO) need to be reviewed?

QDROs are subject to specific requirements. APG, or the plan's legal counsel, should review the QDRO, before it is presented for court approval, to be certain it is drafted correctly and can be administered in accordance with the intent of the parties.

18. What is a fidelity bond?

A fidelity bond is an insurance policy that protects the plan from fraud or dishonesty by fiduciaries. Any fiduciary (anyone who has some discretionary authority or control over the plan or its assets), and anyone who handles the plan's assets, must be bonded. The plan must be the named insured. All plans, other than certain one participant plans, must have a fidelity bond.

Additional requirements:

  • The bond must be in the amount of 10% of the plan assets, with a minimum of $1,000 and a maximum of $500,000. The fidelity bond must have a zero deductible, and a one year discovery period.
  • Higher Fidelity Bond limits apply when there are illiquid plan assets or assets without a readily determinable market value.
  • Plans that invest in Employer stock (ESOPs, stock bonus or other plans with company stock) have an increased maximum bond requirement 10% of plan assets up to $1,000,000.

19. What obligation do we have to participants who are returning from military service?

The Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1974 ("USERRA"), as amended, establishes certain rights for reemployed service members with respect to 401(k) plans and other retirement plans.

A participant reemployed upon completion of qualified military service is entitled to employer contributions made with respect to his/her period of absence, based on the compensation he/she would have received (either based on the rate of pay during the absence, or an average of the previous 12 months' wages). The participant reemployed upon completion of qualified military service is also entitled to make up any missed pre-tax contributions during a period equal to the lesser of three times his period of absence, or five years. The participant reemployed upon completion of qualified military service is not treated as having had a break-in-service.

Please be certain to inform us when you have reemployed participants returning from qualified military service.

THE HEART ACT: The Heroes Earnings Assistance Relief Tax Act of 2008 (Heart Act) was signed into law on June 17, 2008. Plan amendments to comply with the provisions are not required until the end of the 2010 plan year (2012 for governmental plans). However, some provisions affect plan operation and administration immediately:

I. Salary Continuation (Differential Pay), effective January 1, 2009.

Differential pay (the difference between the employee's civilian compensation and military compensation) is pay an employer has elected to continue paying to an employee who is called to active duty for a period of more than 30 days, in an amount not to exceed the level of compensation the service member otherwise would have received had the individual been employed during the period of active duty.

II. Mandatory Survivor Benefits, effective for deaths occurring on or after January 1, 2007.

The mandatory survivor benefits are effective for all individuals who die while in qualified military service (any service in the uniformed services on a voluntary or involuntary basis, including active duty, active duty for training, inactive duty training, and full-time National Guard) on or after January 1, 2007. This applies to qualified plans, 457(b) and 403(b) plans, and states that when a participant dies while in military service, his or her survivors are entitled to any benefit (other than benefit accruals related to military service) that he or she would have been had the service member become reemployed with the employer and then terminated on account of death.

III. Tax Treatment of Distributions.

The HEART Act makes permanent an exception to the 10 percent early distribution penalty for qualified reservist distributions. Additionally an individual is entitled to repay the distribution to an IRA (on an after tax basis) within two years of the end of active duty without regard to the dollar contribution limits of an IRA.

A qualified reservist distribution is a distribution from 401(k) or 403(b) elective deferrals made to a military reservist called to active duty for a period in excess of 179 days or an indefinite period, that is made during the period beginning on the date of such call to order on or after September 11, 2001 and ending on December 31, 2007. The HEART Act makes this provision permanent by extending the exception to individuals ordered or called to active duty on or after December 31, 2007.

IV. Availability of Distributions, effective for Plan Years beginning after December 31, 2008.

A participant on military leave for at least 30 days is treated as having incurred a severance from employment for purposes of the in-service distribution limitations with respect to elective deferrals under a 401(k), 403(b) and 457(b) plan. As a result, such individuals are not prohibited from receiving distributions. However, the individual must be suspended from making deferrals (and employee contributions) for the six-month period following the date of the distribution.

V. Optional Benefit Accruals, effective for deaths and disabilities occurring on any date after January 1, 2007.

Under USERRA, participants returning to employment from active duty are entitled to employer contributions that they would have received if they had been employed during the period of military service, if certain requirements are met. They are permitted to contribute make-up elective deferral contributions for a period equal to 3 times the period of military service, but no longer than 5 years, and are then entitled to related employer matching contributions.

The HEART Act permits employers to provide employer contributions to a participant who cannot return to active employment due to death or disability as if the individual was rehired as of the day before death or disability and then terminated employment on the date of death or disability, provided the plan does so for all similarly situated participants on reasonably equivalent terms. The benefits are based on compensation calculated under the deemed compensation rules of USERRA. To determine an employer matching contribution, the employee elective deferral contributions for the period of military service are deemed equal to the average deferral percentage for participants for the 12 months (or continuous period if less) preceding military leave.

20. Who is a fiduciary, and what responsibilities do fiduciaries assume with respect to qualified retirement plans?

Under Section 3(21) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 ("ERISA") as amended, a fiduciary is a person who exercises any discretionary authority or control with respect to administering or managing a plan, or controlling the plan's assets. Fiduciary status is based on the functions performed for the plan, not just a person's title.

Fiduciaries have important responsibilities and are subject to standards of conduct because they act on behalf of plan participants and their beneficiaries. These responsibilities include:

  • Acting solely in the interest of plan participants and their beneficiaries, and with the exclusive purpose of providing benefits to them;
  • Carrying out their duties prudently;
  • Following the plan documents (unless inconsistent with ERISA);
  • Diversifying plan investments;
  • Paying only reasonable plan expenses.

The duty to act prudently is one of a fiduciary's central responsibilities under ERISA. It requires expertise in a variety of areas, such as investments. Lacking that expertise, a fiduciary will want to hire someone with that professional knowledge to carry out the investment and other functions. Prudence focuses on the process for making decisions. Therefore, it is wise to document decisions and the basis for those decisions.

Visit www.dol.gov/ebsa to obtain more information about fiduciary roles and responsibilities.